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Exam Code: AWS-SYSOPS
Exam Name: AWS Certified SysOps Administrator
Updated: Jan 21, 2019

AWS-SYSOPS dumps

Latest AWS-SYSOPS dumps exam questions and answers (10Q&As)

QUESTION 1
An attacker attempts to create a DoS event against the VoIP system of a company. The attacker uses a
tool to flood the network with a large number of SIP INVITE traffic. Which of the following would be LEAST
likely to thwart such an attack?
A. Install IDS/IPS systems on the network
B. Force all SIP communication to be encrypted
C. Create separate VLANs for voice and data traffic
D. Implement QoS parameters on the switches
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Joe, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), was an Information security professor and a Subject Matter Expert
for over 20 years. He has designed a network defense method which he says is significantly better than
prominent international standards. He has recommended that the company use his cryptographic method.
Which of the following methodologies should be adopted?
A. The company should develop an in-house solution and keep the algorithm a secret.
B. The company should use the CEO’s encryption scheme.
C. The company should use a mixture of both systems to meet minimum standards.
D. The company should use the method recommended by other respected information security
organizations.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve
the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following should the
CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to enable policy based flexible mandatory access controls on an open source OS
to prevent abnormal application modifications or executions. Which of the following would BEST
accomplish this?
A. Access control lists
B. SELinux
C. IPtables firewall
D. HIPS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire
a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web
application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while
performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The
developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following
techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from
malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 7
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be
vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A
third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been
given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and
the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them
instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and
managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives
containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard
drives. During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also
corrupt. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 9
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are
no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are
working. Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is
listening on port 53?
A. PING
B. NESSUS
C. NSLOOKUP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 10
A large enterprise acquires another company which uses antivirus from a different vendor. The CISO has
requested that data feeds from the two different antivirus platforms be combined in a way that allows
management to assess and rate the overall effectiveness of antivirus across the entire organization. Which
of the following tools can BEST meet the CISO’s requirement?
A. GRC
B. IPS
C. CMDB
D. Syslog-ng
E. IDS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Latest 70-533 dumps exam questions and answers (11Q&As)

QUESTION 12
The software configuration status information for a BlackBerry device user includes:
Configuration Status: OK System Status: Downgrade Required Application Status: Upgrade Required
What does this indicate? (Choose one.)
A. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is newer and third-party software that is older than what is specified in the software configuration.
B. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is older and third-party software that is newer than what is specified in the software configuration.
C. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, newer BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is older than what it needs to be.
D. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, older BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is newer than what it needs to be.
E. On the computer hosting the applications, the software configuration needs to be re-indexed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Using BlackBerry Manager, which status indicates that a BlackBerry device user has been successfully activated? (Choose one.)
A. RUNNING
B. ACTIVATED
C. INITIALIZING
D. **BES_NAME(RUNNING)
E. **INITIALIZING
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A system administrator is unable to assign an IT policy to a BlackBerry device user account or to a group. To resolve this problem, which role must be assigned to the system administrator? (Choose one.)
A. Administrator
B. Senior Help Desk Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Audit Administrator
E. Security Audit Administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which BlackBerry Resource Kit tool allows a system administrator to differentiate between hung and busy worker threads? (Choose one.)
A. MessageFlow
B. Pending
C. OutOfCoverage
D. NoResponse
E. AvailIndex
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 16
During the wireless enterprise activation process, the BlackBerry device stops responding and displays the following error message:
Waiting for Services
Which two factors could delay the response of the enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device user is in an area with sporadic wireless network coverage.
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is unable to connect to the BlackBerry Configuration Database.
C. The BlackBerry device requires a security wipe prior to the enterprise activation.
D. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the database.
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the user mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
The system administrator installed the BlackBerry Enterprise Server with BlackBerry MDS Integration Service. Which two interfaces are available to administer the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Manager
B. BlackBerry MDS Studio
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration tool
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration tool
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 18
A company must move the BlackBerry Configuration Database from the local BlackBerry Enterprise Server using MSDE to a new Microsoft SQL Server to improve the performance of the database. What is the best method for moving the database? (Choose one.)
A. Install the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software on the new computer to create the database.
B. Back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
C. Run Createdb to create the database on the new Microsoft SQL Server and restore the backup of the old database to the new database.
D. Run BlackBerry Backup to back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
E. Run Createdb-export to export the database information and then run Createdb-import to restore the database to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an existing application in a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the existing application from the BlackBerry device.
B. Copy and overwrite the existing application into the Shared folder.
C. Index the applications listed in the Applications directory.
D. Refresh the applications listed in the Applications directory.
E. Replace the old application with the new application.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Once the Enterprise Service Policy has been enabled, which of the following two things can be controlled by a system administrator? (Choose two.)
A. The range of PIN numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device models that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The range of IMEI numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The specific time frame in which the BlackBerry device users can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. A specific user service provider that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
A system administrator removed a BlackBerry device user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and tried to add the user back using the BlackBerry Manager. The system administrator was unable to add the user back to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server because they still resided in Users Pending Delete. What should the system administrator do to remove the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using BlackBerry Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to clear the user from the Users Pending Delete
B. Hard delete the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. Use the Purge User command under the Users Pending Delete tab.
D. Remove the user from Users Pending Delete using the BlackBerry Resource Kit.
E. Reload the user and try to delete the user again
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A system administrator enabled the Enterprise Service Policy and determined a list of models and manufacturers that are allowed to be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server. The CEO has a new BlackBerry device that has yet to be included on the list of permitted models. The system administrator wants to permit only the CEO BlackBerry device to be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and not other BlackBerry devices, even though they are the same model. How can the Enterprise Service Policy be configured to meet these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Turn off the Enterprise Service Policy, perform an enterprise activation of the BlackBerry device and after a successful enterprise activation, turn on the Enterprise Service Policy.
B. Manually enter the new BlackBerry device model into the permitted list and set the ES Policy Override to True for the BlackBerry device user account.
C. Set the ES Policy Override to True for the user’s account and perform an enterprise activation of the BlackBerry device.
D. Install the BlackBerry Device Software on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to update the list of models and add the new model to the permitted list.
E. Set the ES Policy Override to True for the user’s account and after enterprise activation, set the ES Policy Override to False.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest 300-085 dumps exam questions and answers (13Q&As)

QUESTION 11
You have replaced the video card in a Power Macintosh G4 (FW 800). In what THREE ways should you test the repair before running the system to the customer? (Choose three)
A. Leave the computer on overnight.
B. Verify that the original symptom is resolved.
C. Verify that no new symptoms have occurred.
D. Start up the computer in Target Disk Mode to test the internal hard drive.
E. Run all Apple Service Diagnostic tests for the Power Mac G4 (FW 800).
F. Run Apple Service Diagnostic video tests for the Power Mac G4 (FW 800).
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 12
An eMac has no video, but powers on with a normal startup chime, and normal startup sounds from the hard drive. Which of the following steps should you try next?
A. Update the eMac firmware.
B. Replace the eMac logic board.
C. Replace the eMac Display/Analog Assembly.
D. Connect a known-good VGA display to the eMac.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are troubleshooting an intermittent video issue on an eMac. Which of the following is them most appropriate way to approach this problem?
A. Do nothing. The problem may resolve itself.
B. Run looping diagnostics to verify the issue.
C. Follow component isolation steps to resolve the issue.
D. Replace the Display/Analog Assembly inside the eMac.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is ALMOST CERTAINLY a software-related problem?
A. No video display
B. Low disk space warning
C. Single beep at startup
D. No Internet connectivity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are troubleshooting a Power Mac G5 that will not boot, and emits error tones when powered on. You suspect that the customer may have installed incompatible or faulty RAM, but you are not sure. What should you do to verify the RAM requirements for this Power MAC G5?
A. Call Apple
B. Order Apple RAM
C. Check Specifications
D. Count the RAM sockets on the logic board
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You are troubleshooting a Power Mac G5 that has the following symptom: The power-on LED illuminates when the power button is pressed, fans spin, and the boot tine chimes, but there is no video displayed on the attached know-good display. Rank the following possible causes from First to Last, in the order you should check them:
1. Crashed PMU 2. Faulty logic board 3. Corrupted PRAM
4. Video card not fully seated in logic board connector 5. Faulty video card
A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
E. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
An eMac (USB 2.0) is displaying a flashing question mark at startup. When you start up the computer from a known-good bootable external FireWire hard drive the internal hard drive does not appear on the desktop. What is the recommended order in which to attempt the following troubleshooting steps on the internal hard drive?
1.Replace the hard drive.
2.Reinitialize the hard drive.
3.Replace the hard drive cable.
4.Verify the hard drive’s cable connections.
5.Reinstall the software drivers for the hard drive.
A. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
C. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
E. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
A customer states that he cannot open an AppleWorks file. What is the most productive question to ask him FIRST?
A. Can you open any files?
B. Can you open other AppleWorks files?
C. What version of AppleWorks are you using?
D. In your Mac connected to a network?
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
In this picture of an iMAC (USB 2.0) logic board, what is the highlighted part?
A. Modem
B. Logic Board
C. SDRAM DIMM
D. Processor Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A hard dive in a Power Mac G4 (QuickSilver) is not spinning after the computer is powered on. You have verified that the drive power cable connector has no voltage by using a voltmeter. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. Hard Drive
B. Hard Drive Data Cable
C. Power Supply Assembly
D. Cable Harness Assembly
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which THREE of the following computers uses Serial ATA hard drive technology? Select three.
A. Power Mac G4 (FW 800)
B. Power Mac G5 (Uni 1.6GHz)
C. Power Mac G5 (Dual 2.0 GHz)
D. Power Mac G4 (Mirrored Drive Doors)
E. Power Mac G5 (June 2004 Dual 2.5 GHz)
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 22
A customer states that he has never been able to burn DVD’s with his eMac (USB 2.0), yet his friend has an identical-looking eMac (USB 2.0) that can burn DVD’s. You have verified that the customer’s eMac (USB 2.0) has a DVD / CD-RW Combo optical drive and is running the latest version of Mac OS X. The eMac has no other problems. What is the probable cause is this issue?
A. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires more RAM.
B. The eMac (USB 2.0) requires a firmware update.
C. The Combo drive is not capable of burning DVD’s.
D. The eMac (USB 2.O) optical drive is malfunctioning.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You are working on an eMac that has no video on its built-in display. The fan is spinning, and there is drive activity present. You have tried resetting PRAM, booting to a known-good CD, and resetting the PMUm but the issue persists. You have also connected a known-good external VGA monitor to the eMac’s video out port, but failed to see any video on the external display. Which of the following is the most appropriate part or module to replace in this situation?
A. CRT
B. Logic Board
C. Power Supply
D. Display / Analog Assembly
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name:Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Updated: Jan 17, 2019
Q&As: 112

70-480 dumps demo

Latest 70-480 dumps exam questions and answers (19Q&As)

QUESTION 52
Lose buffered fiber optic cable generally have a 900 micron plastic coating applied directly to the fiber.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 53
What is the permitted substitutes for a fiber optic cable rated OFNP?
A. OFNG
B. None
C. OFCP
D. OFNR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 54
Premises centralized multimode optical fiber can be installed up to how many meters/feet?
A. 300 m (984 if)
B. 100 m (328 if)
C. 500 m (1640 ft)
D. 2000 m (6560 if)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 55
As a general guideline in premises applications for backbone cabling, 62.5/125 or 50/125 micrometer multimode optical fiber is recommended for greater distances and higher data rates.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
Backbone sleeves and slots must not obstruct wall terminating space in TR’s.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Which of the following are disadvantages of buried cabling?
A. Does not provide physical protection to the cable sheath.
B. Discourages accurate route planning and record keeping.
C. Is inflexible for future service reinforcement or changes.
D. Has a high initial installation cost.
E. None of these.
F. Usually takes more time to install where facility provisioning must be expedited.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 58
Underground facilities are cables placed in subsurface conduits, using maintenance holes and or pull boxes.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 59
OSP cables routed inside a building are influenced by fire codes.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
The (FCC) CC Docket 88-57
A. Address electromagnetic radiation.
B. Sets policies governing shared tenant services.
C. Defines the location of the demarcation point. The third report and order (99-405) established Category 3 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) as the minimum cable standard for simple premises wiring.
D. Establishes new rules for provisioning and competition in telecommunications services.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 61
A main cross-connect to intermediate cross-connect may be an interbuilding or intrabuilding link.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 62
Designing an intrabuilding backbone involves the same options and decision of a interbuilding backbone.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 63
A star intrabuilding backbone is where the HC is connected directly to the buildings MC.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 64
The required minimum clearance of telecommunication cable above street and driveway surfaces is which of the following?
A. 15.5 feet vertically
B. 10 feet vertically
C. 23.5 feet vertically
D. 18 feet vertically

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 65
Aerial pole bending moments are usually controlling at unguyed corners and dead ends.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 66
Arial suspension strands and cable should usually be placed on the road side of the pole line.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 67
How many storm loading areas are there in the contiguous United States?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Three
E. One
F. Two Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 68
The maximum amount of pull for unguyed corners for a 1OM suspension strand is which of the following?
A. None of these.
B. Any detectable amount.
C. 3 feet of pull.
D. 2 feet of pull.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 69
Class C suspension strands are used for corrosive environments such as in industrial or coastal area.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 70
Manholes between 12 and 20 feet long use two covers.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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300-075 dumps exam

Latest 300-075 dumps exam questions and answers (29Q&As)

QUESTION: 1
The solicitation specifications and statement of work contain:
A. Administrative requirements
B. Technical requirements
C. Company policy
D. Pricing contracts
70-243 exam Answer: B

QUESTION: 2
The range between the extremes of an optimistic and pessimistic prediction about future
costs is called range of:
A. Possible costs
B. Final costs
C. Scope costs
D. Limit costs
Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
The risk avoiding buyer wants to minimize the risk of agreeing to a higher price than
necessary to cover the buyer’s costs plus a reasonable profit.
A. True
B. False
70-243 dumps Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
Who avoid the risk of agreeing to the price that may not cover its actual performance
costs or allow a reasonable profit?
A. Risk avoiding buyer
B. Business professional
C. Risk avoiding seller D.
Technical personnel
Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
occur when the work has not changed, but it costs more than anticipated.
A. Cost Growth
B. Unpredictable cost
C. Extra cost
D. Cost overruns
70-243 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
The pricing arrangements fall into which of the following categories:
A. Fixed-price
B. cost-reimbursement
C. Time-and-material contracts
D. All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION: 7
A pre-contract agreement that merely communicates any agreed-to terms and conditions
that will apply when an order is placed by the buyer is known as:
A. Macro agreement
B. Universal agreement
C. Fixed agreement
D. Approved agreement
70-243 vce Answer: B

QUESTION: 8
What clause can provide for price increases based on the seller’s costs but not on the
seller’s decision to increase the prices of its products and services?
A. Economic price adjustment
B. Variable-price adjustment
C. Prices & Taxes adjustment
D. Appropriate price adjustment
Answer: A

QUESTION: 9
Governments commonly use what type of contracts when contracting with universities
and non-profit organizations for research projects?
A. Written contracts
B. Variable contracts
C. Cost reimbursement contracts
D. Cost sharing contracts
70-243 exam Answer: C

QUESTION: 10
The cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost contract provides for the seller to receive
reimbursement for its actual cost and a profit component, called
some predetermined percentage of its actual costs.
A. fee
B. statement
C. penalty
D. None of the above
Answer: A

QUESTION: 11
Which of the following has the fundamental purpose to motivate desired performance in
one or more specific areas?
A. Contract incentive
B. Contract pricing
C. Objective incentive
D. Contract penalties
70-243 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION: 12
Those incentives that use predetermined formula-based methods to calculate the amount
of incentive, either positive or negative, in one or more designated areas are called:
A. Objectively-based and evaluated
B. Subjectively-based and evaluated
C. Early-based and evaluated
D. Final-based and evaluated
Answer: A

QUESTION: 13
Which of the following shows the designated performance area in the objectively-based
and evaluated incentives?
A. Cost performance
B. Schedule or delivery performance
C. Quality performance
D. All of the above
70-243 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION: 14
Those incentives that use individual judgment, opinions, and informed impressions as the
basis for determining the amount of incentive, either positive or negative, in one or more
designated areas are called:
A. Objectively-based and evaluated
B. Subjectively-based and evaluated
C. Early-based and evaluated
D. Final-based and evaluated
Answer: B

QUESTION: 15
Which of the following shows the designated performance area in the subjectively-based
and evaluated incentives?
A. Award fees
B. Other special incentives
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
70-243 vce Answer: C

QUESTION: 16
The point at which sharing changes to 0/100 is called the
represents a cost figure.
A. Point of configuration
B. Point of total assumption
C. Pattern point
D. Prototype point
Answer: B

QUESTION: 17
The formula to calculate the Point of Total Assumption (PTA) is:
A. PTA = (Floor price – Target price / seller share ratio) + Target cost
B. PTA = (Target price – Ceiling price / Buyer share ratio) + Target cost
C. PTA = (Target price – Ceiling price / seller share ratio) + Target cost
D. PTA = (Ceiling price – Target price / Buyer share ratio) + Target cost
70-243 exam Answer: D

QUESTION: 18
Liquidated damages are a negative incentive (penalty) for:
A. Over budget
B. Late delivery
C. Do not achieve requirements
D. Requirements gap
Answer: B

QUESTION: 19
A critical aspect in the success of performance-based incentive contracting is called:
A. Creativity
B. Timeliness
C. Achievement
D. Standardization
70-243 dumps Answer: A

QUESTION: 20
An agreement on a set of criteria and procedures to be applied by the buyer in
determining how well the seller has performed and how much fee the seller has earned is
called:
A. Inducement plans
B. Awarded-plans
C. Award-free plans
D. Contract incentive plans
Answer: C

QUESTION: 21
A fixed fee that the seller will earn no matter how its performance is evaluated in known
as:
A. incurred fee
B. award fee
C. period fee
D. base fee
70-243 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION: 22
Which contracts allow overrun or under-run sharing of cost through a predetermined
formula for fee adjustments that apply to incentives for cost category contracts?
A. fixed price incentive
B. cost-plus-incentive fee
C. special incentive fee
D. pros and cons of award fee
Answer: B

QUESTION: 23
Which of the following is Correct?
A. cost-plus-award fee contracts include subjective incentives, in which the profit the
seller earns depends on how well the seller satisfies a buyer’s subjective desires.
B. cost-plus-incentive fee contracts include subjective incentives, in which the profit the
seller earns depends on how well the seller satisfies a buyer’s objective desires.
C. cost-plus-award fee contracts include objective incentives, in which the profit the
buyer earns depends on how well the seller satisfies a buyer’s objective desires.
D. cost-plus-incentive fee contracts include objective incentives, in which the profit the
buyer earns depends on how well the buyer satisfies a seller’s subjective desires.
70-243 vce Answer: A

QUESTION: 24
Time and Material contracts typically involve higher levels of risks for sellers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

QUESTION: 25
When two parties expect except to deal with one another repeatedly for the purchase and
sale of good and services, they may decide to enter into a long-term purchase agreement.
A. True
B. False
70-243 exam Answer: A

QUESTION: 26
Commercial products and commercial services from which reasonable prices can be
established, is the suitability for which contract type?
A. Firm-fixed price
B. Firm-variable price
C. Fixed-price incentive
D. Price adjustment
Answer: A

QUESTION: 27
Price can be adjusted on action of an industry-wide contingency that is beyond seller’s
control is a disadvantage of which contract type?
A. Firm-fixed price
B. Firm-variable price
C. Cost-plus-Fixed-fee incentive
D. Fixed-price with economic price adjustment
70-243 dumps Answer: D

QUESTION: 28
Allowable costs of contract performance are reimbursed, but not fee is paid is the
advantage of cost reimbursement contract type.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

QUESTION: 29
Fee is expressed as percentage of estimated cost at time contract is awarded, is the
advantage of:
A. Cost-plus-award-fee
B. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost
C. Cost-plus-fixed-fee incentive
D. Cost-plus-fixed-incentive incentive
70-243 pdf Answer: C

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300-208 exam

Latest 300-208 exam dumps (5Q&As)

QUESTION 21
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
642-883 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Commands relating to a peer group found in Cisco IOS Release 12.2 have been removed from Cisco IOS XR software. Instead, the af-group, session-group, and neighbor-group configuration commands are added to support the neighbor in Cisco IOS XR software: The af-group command is used to group address family-specific neighbor commands within an IPv4 or IPv6 address family. Neighbors that have the same address family configuration are able to use the address family group name for their address family-specific configuration. A neighbor inherits the configuration from an address family group by way of the use command. If a neighbor is configured to use an address family group, the neighbor will (by default) inherit the entire configuration from the address family group. However, a neighbor will not inherit all of the configuration from the address family group if items are explicitly configured for the neighbor. The session-group command allows you to create a session group from which neighbors can inherit address family-independent configuration. A neighbor inherits the configuration from a session group by way of the use command. If a neighbor is configured to use a session group, the neighbor (by default) inherits the session group’s entire configuration. A neighbor does not inherit all the configuration from a session group if a configuration isdone directly on that neighbor.The neighbor-group command helps you apply the same configuration to one or more neighbors. Neighbor groups can include session groups and address family groups. This additional flexibility can create a complete configuration for a neighbor. Once a neighbor group is configured, each neighbor can inherit the configuration through the use command. If a neighbor is configured to use a neighbor group, the neighbor (by default) inherits the neighbor group’s entire BGP configuration. However, a neighbor will not inherit all of the configuration from the neighbor group if items are explicitly configured for the neighbor. In addition, some part of the neighbor group’s configuration could be hidden if a session group or address family group was also being used.
QUESTION 22
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
642-883 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 23
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS. Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
642-883 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A few different approaches are available to deal with iBGP and synchronization. We may turn on the synchronization option on our routers and wait for the IGP to have a route for the destination before it’s advertised to peers. Another option is to simply use a full mesh, so that iBGP convergence isn’t an issue. Clearly that isn’t going to happen when a network’s core needs to scale: it will implement something like reflectors that cause iBGP’s full mesh to be broken. The real alternative, if you don’t enable synchronization, is to use route recursion. A recursive route lookup uses the BGP next-hop attribute to actually make a different route lookup. The IGP can use the destination network instead of the AS-path to determine where it gets sent. Even if the iBGP hasn’t converged, the routers will still know how to get to that network, since it will exist in the router it was advertised from, who will know the next-hop.
QUESTION 24
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
642-883 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New Reserved AS#
AS_TRANS = AS #23456
2-byte placeholder for a 4-byte AS number Used for backward compatibility between OLD and NEW BGP speakers
QUESTION 25
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
642-883 Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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PMP dumps exam

The latest PMP dumps exam (47Q&As)

QUESTION NO: 1
In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
1Y0-371 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
D. Virtualization-as-a-Service
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the organization would be expected to grow larger?
A. Power and energy
B. Management
C. Infrastructure
D. Operational
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
What best describes the “metered service” characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their problem. Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
1Y0-371 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which is a benefit of server clustering?
A. High CPU utilization
B. High availability
C. High memory utilization
D. High security
1Y0-371 exam Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
Which is used to logically group FC ports?
A. Zone
B. VLAN
C. Mask
D. ISL
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
A. Area ID
B. Port ID
C. Domain ID
D. WWN
1Y0-371 vce Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 16
Which protocol is most commonly used for compute-to-compute communication?
A. TCP/IP
B. FC
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 17
Which term is used to describe the virtual space in which all nodes communicate with each other in a SAN environment?
A. Fabric
B. Fibre Channel
C. Loop
D. Trunking
1Y0-371 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 18
What is a benefit of an Object based storage system?
A. It uses multiple object IDs for high security
B. It provides fast replication
C. It ensures data integrity
D. It enables fast backup
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which are components of FCoE?
A. Converged Network Adapter and Fibre Channel Forwarder
B. Bridging and E_port
C. E_port and Zoning
D. TCP/IP and Fibre Channel
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 20
A compute resource is accessing data from storage over a network at the block level. Which statement is true about the associated file system?
A. It is managed by the compute resource.
B. It is managed by the storage.
C. It is part of the network.
D. It is managed by the application.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 21
Which enables distributed FC SAN islands to interconnect over a WAN?
A. FCoE
B. CEE
C. ISCSI
D. FCIP
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
Which FC port type is located on the compute system’s HBA?
A. N_port
B. E_port
C. F_port
D. G_port
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
Which port type should be designated to allow an FC switch port to automatically determine its functionality during initialization?
A. G_port
B. N_port
C. F_port
D. E_port
1Y0-371 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
What does the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) define?
A. Amount of data loss that a business can endure between an outage and recovery
B. Period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered after an outage
C. Number of applications that are mission critical for a business to recover after an outage
D. Period of time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause prior to recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25
An administrator wants to perform replication between heterogeneous storage arrays over a WAN. Which technology should you recommend to the administrator?
A. SAN-based replication
B. Three site replication
C. Array-based replication
D. Silvering
1Y0-371 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
What is a key advantage of pointer-based, full volume replication in Copy on First Access (COFA) mode compared to Full Volume mirroring?
A. The replica device size is smaller than the original.
B. The source device is not required for restore.
C. The replica is immediately accessible.
D. The replica only holds pointers to the source data.
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
Which data center management activity ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Performance management
D. Security management
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
Which is a key benefit of implementing an ILM strategy?
A. Lower total cost of ownership
B. Lower recovery time
C. High performance
D. High security
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Which metric can be used for monitoring performance bottlenecks?
A. Number of replication task failures
B. Number of I/Os to the disk
C. Number of login failures
D. Number of used and free ports on a switch
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30
A storage administrator receives an alert message that a new LUN has been created. Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?
A. Warning
B. Fatal
C. Information
D. Normal
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 31
A storage administrator receives an alert message that a disk has failed. Based on severity, how should this alert be classified?
A. Fatal
B. Warning
C. Information
D. Normal
1Y0-371 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
Which is a benefit provided by Hyper-threading in a virtualized server environment?
A. Improved CPU utilization
B. Logical CPU load balancing
C. Improved memory utilization
D. Improved virtual machine security
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
Transparent page sharing is employed in a compute system. What occurs if a write to a shared page is attempted?
A. Data is overwritten on the page.
B. A shared copy of the page is created.
C. The shared page size is extended.
D. A private copy of the page is created.
1Y0-371 exam Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 34
What is the key function of the balloon driver in the memory ballooning technique?
A. To demand memory from guest OS and later relinquish it under the control of the hypervisor
B. To demand memory from the hypervisor and later relinquish it under the control of the virtual machine
C. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the hypervisor
D. To extend memory using a swap file under the control of the virtual machine
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35
What happens to a swap file if the associated virtual machine is powered off?
A. The swap file is deleted.
B. The content of the swap file is preserved.
C. The swap file is emptied.
D. The swap file remains open for use by the hypervisor.
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
What is required to convert a physical machine to a virtual machine when using cold mode?
A. Converter switch
B. Converter Boot CD
C. Converter server
D. Converter agent
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
What is the correct sequence of steps for performing cold conversion from a physical machine to a virtual machine (VM)?
A. The converter application creates a new VM on the destination physical machine.
B. The converter application copies volumes from the source machine to the destination machine.
C. Boot the source machine from the converter boot CD and use converter software to define conversion parameters.
D. The converter application installs the required drivers to allow the OS to boot from the VM and personalizes the VM.
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
How does a virtual machine appear to a hypervisor?
A. As a discrete set of files
B. As a physical machine
C. As a remote server
D. As a file system
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39
Which type of hypervisor is recommended if the organization’s primary concern is performance of virtual machines?
A. Bare-metal
B. Hosted
C. Built-in
D. Encapsulated
1Y0-371 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 40
Which statement is true about a virtual machine (VM) swap file?
A. It stores the state of the VM BIOS.
B. It exists only when the VM is running.
C. It stores configuration information of VMs.
D. It is used for troubleshooting VMs.
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
Which component provides the ability to power off the virtual machine?
A. Virtual Machine Console
B. Virtual Machine Monitor
C. Virtual Machine Controller
D. Virtual Machine BIOS
1Y0-371 exam Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
What is a function of Virtual Machine Monitor?
A. Binary translation
B. File system management
C. Virtual machine troubleshooting
D. Process scheduling
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
Which component optimally assigns physical CPU resources to virtual machines?
A. Guest OS kernel
B. CPU load balancer
C. Hypervisor scheduler
D. Virtual machine controller
1Y0-371 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
An administrator decides to power on a virtual machine (VM) that has less memory available in a resource pool than the configured reservation parameter. What would be the expected outcome?
A. The VM will fail to power on.
B. The VM will crash after boot up.
C. The VM will power on in safe mode.
D. The VM will power on normally but perform poorly.
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 45
Which statement about automated storage tiering is true?
A. Data movement is performed non-disruptively.
B. Total size of the required storage is reduced.
C. It provides automated storage provisioning.
D. It is performed only within a storage array.
1Y0-371 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which network component performs physical-to-virtual volume mapping?
A. Logical Volume Manager
B. Virtualization appliance
C. Virtual Machine File System
D. Virtual machine
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
What are the three deployment models offered by EMC VPLEX?
A. Local, metro, and geo
B. Local, remote, and multi-site
C. Local, remote, and geo
D. Local, metro, and wide
1Y0-371 vce Answer: A
Explanation:

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The latest 300-320 exam dumps (15Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL data warehouse. During peak usage, you discover that the data warehouse fails to meet performance expectations. You need to provide additional resources to the data warehouse. What should you do?
A. Create an additional storage pool.
B. Create an elastic database pool.
C. Increase the number of Database Throughput Units (DTUs).
D. Increase the number of Data Warehouse Units (DWUs).
70-473 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have Microsoft SQL Server installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. The virtual machine is on the Standard D3 service tier. All of the data files for the databases on the virtual machine are located on a single volume that is mounted
as drive E. The virtual machine experiences performance issues. You view the wait statistics and discover a high number of GEIOLATCH_SH waits associated to the tempdb data files. You need to resolve the performance issues. What should you do?
A. Move the tempdb data files to drive D.
B. Move the tempdb data files to drive C.
C. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard D12.
D. Change the service tier of the virtual machine to Standard DS3.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. The members of an Active Directory group named HelpDesk can log in to the SQL Server instance. You need to ensure that the members of HelpDesk can query dynamic management views and gather performance metrics from the SQL Server instance. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Add HelpDesk to the db_owner role for all of the databases.
B. Add HelpDesk to the new role.
C. Grant VIEW ANY DATABASE to the new role.
D. Grant VIEW SERVER STATE to the new role.
E. Create a database role.
F. Create a server role.
70-473 dumps Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 4
You deploy a Microsoft SQL Server instance on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine by using a template. You plan to deploy a PHP-based app in an Azure web app. The web app will use a database on the virtual machine. The web app and the virtual machine will be on the same Azure virtual network. You need to ensure that the web app can access the SQL Server database. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Change the SQL Server authentication to mixed mode.
B. Use sp_configure to enable remote access.
C. From the Azure portal, add an endpoint for TCP port 1434.
D. On the virtual machine, enable the inbound connections on TCP port 1433 from Windows Firewall.
E. Restart the SQL Server service.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 5
You have Microsoft SQL Server 2014 installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine. One of the databases on the virtual machine supports a highly active Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data in the application. Which two tools can you use to identify the longest running queries? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the Job Activity Monitor
B. Database Engine Tuning Advisor
C. dynamic management views
D. SQL Server Extended Events
E. SQL metrics in Azure Diagnostics for the virtual machine
70-473 pdf Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The database is hosted in the West US region and uses the Premium service tier. Users of the database are located in Los Angeles, New York, and Singapore. The users in Singapore report that when they run reports against the database, the reports take a long time to complete. The reports contain thousands of rows. You need to recommend a solution to resolve the performance issue. The solution must maintain the performance for the other users. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Move the Azure SQL database from the West US region to the East Asia region.
B. Implement Azure ExpressRoute for the subscription.
C. Configure a readable geo-replica in the East Asia region.
D. Configure pagination for the report.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You plan to implement a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to create and manage the new database on a new server.
Which three cmdlets should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServer
B. New AzureSqlDatabaseServerFirewallRule
C. New-AzureSqlDatabaseServerContext
D. New-AzureVM
E. New-AzureSqlDatabase
70-473 vce Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid Microsoft SQL Server environment that has multiple servers and services that run in both Microsoft Azure and on-premises. If the network fails, you need to ensure that users can authenticate and connect to the resources available in Azure. Which two server roles should you deploy to Azure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution?
A. Active Directory Federation Services
B. Active Directory Certificate Services
C. DHCP Server
D. Active Directory Domain Services
E. DNS Server
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You have Microsoft SQL Server installed on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is provisioned by using the classic deployment model and is on the Standard GS5 service tier. The virtual machine is used for testing purposes only.
You need to minimize the costs associated with VM1 when the virtual machine is unused. Which command should you use?
A. Update-AzureVM
B. Stop-AzureVM
C. Suspend-VM
D. Stop-VM
70-473 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company has two offices located in London and New York. The London office has a public IP of 131.107.1.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.4.0/24. The New York office has a public IP of 131.107.15.1 and a private IP subnet of 192.168.8.0/24.
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database. Currently, only the users in the London office use the database.
You plan to provide the users in the New York office with access to the database.
You need to ensure that the New York office users can access the database.
Which command should you execute?
A. EXECUTE sp_set_database_firewall_rule N’NewYork,’131.107.15.1′,’255.255.255.255′
B. EXECUTE sp_set_database_firewall_rule N’NewYork, ‘192.168.8.0’, `192.168.8.255′;
C. EXECUTE sp_set_database_firewall_rule N’NewYork,’192.168.8.0′, ‘255.255.255.0’;
D. EXECUTE sp_set_database_firewall_rule N’NewYork,’131.107.15.1′,’131.107.15.1′;
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft Azure virtual machine that hosts a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You need to configure firewall rules to meet the following requirements:
Which Azure endpoint ports should you open? To answer, drag the appropriate ports to the correct types of access. Each port may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
Select and Place:
70-473 dumps
70-473 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
You hire a new employee to assist in the management of a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
You need to ensure that the employee can query dynamic management views.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-473 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-473 dumps

QUESTION 13
You have four Microsoft Azure SQL databases.
You need to configure cross-database queries.
Which four statements should you use in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-473 dumps
70-473 pdf Correct Answer:
70-473 dumps

QUESTION 14
You need to recommend a solution to migrate the Listings database to the cloud. What should you recommend?
A. Stage the Listings database on an Azure virtual machine prior to the outage. During the outage, perform a data import from the main office by using SQL Server Management Studio.
B. Implement log-shipping between the main office and an Azure virtual machine prior to the migration date. During the planned outage, perform a final log backup, restore the backup to the secondary, and then switch the secondary to the
primary role.
C. Run a full backup during the outage and restore the backup to the Azure virtual machine.
D. Implement merge replication between the main office and the Azure virtual machine.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are evaluating whether an Azure SQL Database elastic database pool suits your workload and usage patterns. What are two possible ways to identify the elastic database transaction units (eDTUs)? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Aggregate data from sys.dm_os_wait_stats.
B. Run the Database Engine Tuning Advisor.
C. Run the Service Tier Advisor.
D. Aggregate data from sys.dm_db_resource_stats.
E. Aggregate data from sys.dm_os_performance_counters.
70-473 vce Correct Answer: DE

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Latest Cisco Field Engineer 300-101 Test Dumps
QUESTION 1
Which troubleshooting tool does an engineer use to determine whether a cat! is being subjected to
traversal bandwidth restrictions?
A. registration log
B. calls log
C. search history log
D. event log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which method does the Conductor use to determine the source of an incoming call to a rendezvous type
conference?
A. conference IP addresses
B. location IP addresses
C. management IP addresses
D. source IP addresses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS
database?
A. System > Navigator
B. System > System Overview
C. System > Provisioning
D. System > Manage Dial Plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists
deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A. single combined server deployment
B. scaled and resilient server deployment
C. scaled and combined server deployment
D. single split server deployment
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
In an H.323 call that is not interworked, which three signaling protocols are routed through the
Expressway? (Choose three.)
A. RTP
B. Q.931
C. C. H.254
D. RAS
E. RTCP
F. H.245
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 6
Which two methods can be used in TMSto schedule conferences? (Choose two.)
A. Administrative Tools > Configuration > Conference Settings
B. Booking > New Conference
C. Scheduling > New Conference
D. Reporting > Conferences
E. Monitoring > Conference Control Center
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion
is the Cisco recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations?
A. transforms
B. user policy
C. service preference
D. call policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A. where user information comes from
B. how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D. API integration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about Call Service Connect on a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment is true?
A. Call Service Connect does not require media traversal capabilities or licenses to be installed.
B. Mutual TLS can be used to deploy Call Service Connect, but it is not required.
C. Call Service Aware does not need be deployed to use Call Service Connect.
D. Call Service Connect allows integration between Cisco Spark and Cisco Unified Communications
Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which statement about setting up a call bridge cluster for a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server
deployment is true?
A. Call bridges can connect to databases in full mesh.
B. Call bridges only connect to the master database.
C. Only one call bridge should be configured per domain in a database cluster.
D. Call bridges can read/write to any database in a cluster at anytime.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about subzones are true? (Choose two.)A. Endpointsare assigned to a particular subzone by their alias or IP subnet.
B. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication
C. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network.
D. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints for authentication
E. Subzones are used for bandwidth and authentication control of a logical grouping of endpoints within
the registration list of the Expressway
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about endpoint registration authentication are true? (Choose two.)
A. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
B. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
C. The endpoint and Expressway must be configured and synchronized with an NTP server delivering an
identical time stamp.
D. Expressways and endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
E. When a subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint must have the correct authentications
configured.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which SIP message is sent from the called endpoint after the call request is accepted?
A. “Hello”
B. “404 OK”
C. “Connect”
D. “200 OK”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which H.323 functionality exists on the Cisco Meeting Server?
A. H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
B. H.323-to-SIP Interworking
C. H.323 registration and call only
D. H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which description of the role of the service preference in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A. It consists of a group of conference aliases and it determines, in order of priority, which alias to choose
for a conference.
B. It consists of one or more bridge pools and it determines which of these pools, in order of priority, to
use for a conference.
C. It determines the bandwidth that is supplied by the service provider.
D. It determines the conference template to be used for a particular conference based upon alias.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
While scheduling a CMS conference on TMS, an engineer notices that it will not add a WebEx meeting as
a participant. Which option is the possible issue?A. WebEx requires a domain be added to the CMS.
B. WebEx can be added to conferences only using Telepresence Server/Conductor.
C. A SIP trunk is required between the WebEx server and CMS.
D. The WebEx server address must be properly configured in TMS and the CMS.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which description of Cisco WebEx Telepresence is true?
A. It is the Cisco term for a fully enabled on-premises collaboration solution.
B. It is a solution that allows on-premises endpoint to register to the WebEx meeting Center.
C. It allows endpoints on-premises to register to Cisco infrastructure in the cloud.
D. It is a Cisco WebEx solution that allows integration between WebEx Meeting Center and on-premises
collaboration solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.)
A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone.
C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone.
D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone.
E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint’s alias or IP subnet.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 19
An engineer wants to use TMS to send registration configurations automatically every Sunday at 3:00 a.m.
to a group of endpoints in a remote office. Where does the engineer navigate to create this setting?
A. Systems> Manage Dial Plan
B. Systems > Configuration Templates
C. Systems > Provisioning
D. Systems > Navigator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to only allow the registration of endpoints with aliases containing cisco.com asthe
domain.
Which option accomplishes this task?
A. Set the restriction policy to “Deny” and include the expression.*@*in the deny list.
B. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression\l@ cisco.com in the allow list.
C. Set the restriction policy to “Allow” and include the expression. *@cisco. com in the allow list.
D. Set the restriction policy to “None” and include the expression \1@ cisco.com in the allow list.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two primary protocols does TMS use to communicate with endpoints and infrastructure? (Choose
two.)
A. BFCDB. SIP
C. HTTPS
D. H.323
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which option governs the order in which the search rules query the local zone versus neighbored
Expressways?
A. priority number
B. call processing order
C. call policy
D. target zone
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two products are available as multipoint conferencing options in the CMR Premise platform?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch
C. Telepresence Server
D. Cisco VCS
E. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 24
Which option is the correct format for a SIP alias?
A. 212-555-1212
B. +12125551212
C. John.doe@cisco.com
D. John.doe
Correct Answer: C

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